Monthly Archives: December 2021

Question And Answer:

Q.1What is meant by environment?
ANSWER: Environment is defined as the total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources. It includes all the biotic and abiotic factors that influence each other. Biotic elements are all living elements — the birds, ainimals and plants, forests, fisheries, etc. Abiotic elements are like air, water, land, rocks, sunlight, etc.

Q.2 What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration?
ANSWER:  Environment includes sun, soil, water and air which are essential ingredients for the sustenance of human life. The carrying capacity of the environment implies that the resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of the resources and the waste generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment. Carrying capacity of the environment helps to sustain life. Absence of carryingjcapacity of environment means absence of life

Q.3 Classify the following into renewable and non-renewable resources (i) trees (ii) fish
(iii) petroleum (iv) coal (v) iron-ore (vi) water.
ANSWER:  Trees and fish are renewable resources.
Petroleum, coal, iron-ore and water are non-renewable resources.

Q.4 Two major environmental issues facing the world today are and .
ANSWER:  Global warming and Ozone depletion.

Q.5 How do the following factors contribute to the environmental crisis in India? What problem do they pose for the government?

1.  Rising population
2.  Air pollution
3.  Water contamination
4. Affluent consumption standards.
5.  Illiteracy
6.  Industrialisation
7.  Urbanisation
8.  Reduction of forest coverage
9.  Poaching
10.  Global warming.

ANSWER: 

1.  The high rate of growth of population adversely affects the environment. It certainly leads to soil and water pollution.
2. India is one of the ten most industrialised nations of the world. It has led to unplanned
   urbanisation, pollution and the risk of accidents. The CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board) has identified 17 categories of industries which are significant pollutors.
3.  Many states in India are on the edge of famine. Whatever water is available, it is polluted or contaminated. It causes diseases like diarrhoea and hepatitis.
4.  With affluent consumption standards, people Use more air conditioners. CFCs are used as cooling agents in air condition which leads to ozone depletion.
5.  Illiteracy and ignorance about the use of non-renewable resources, alternative energy sources, lead to environmental crisis.
6.  With rise in national income or economic activity, there is rise in industrialisation and urbanisation. This raises pollution of air, water and noise. There are accidents, shortage of water, housing problems, etc. In other words, with rise in national income there is ecological degradation which reduces welfare of the people.
7.  Whenever there is large migration of population from rural to urban areas, it leads to fast growth of slum areas. There is excess of load on the existing infrastructural facilities. It causes environmental degradation and ill health.
8.  The per capita forestland in the country is only 0.08 hectare. There is an excess felling of about 15 million cubic metre forests over the permissible limit. Indiscriminate felling of trees has led to destruction of forest cover.
   Once forests haye been cut down, essential nutrients are washed out of the soil all-together. This leads to soil erosion. It leads to disastrous flooding since there is no soil to soak up the rain.
9.  Poaching leads to extinction of wildlife.
   The long-term results of global warming are:
   (a) Melting of polar ice caps with a resulting rise in the sea level and coastal flooding.
   (b) Disruption of drinking water supplies as snow melts.
   (c) Extinction of species.
   (d) Frequent tropical storms and tropical diseases.

Q.6 What are the functions of the environment?
ANSWER:  The environment performs^four vital functions:

1. Environment Supplies Resources. Resources include both renewable and non-renewable re¬sources. Renewable resources are those which can be used without the possibility of the resource becoming depleted or exhausted. In other words, a continuous supply of the resource remains available. Examples of renewable resources are trees in the forest and fish in the ocean. Non-renew¬able resources are those which get exhausted with extraction and use. Example, fossil fuels.
2.  Environment Sustains Life. Environment includes sun, soil, water and air which are essential ingredients for the sustenance of human life. The carrying capacity of the environment implies that the resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of the resources and the waste generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment. Carrying capacity of the environment helps to sustain life. Absence of carrying capacity of environments means absence of life.
3.  Environment Assimilates Waste. Production and consumption activities generate waste. This occur mostly in the form of garbage. Environment absorbs garbage.
4.  Environment Enhances Quality of Life. Environment includes oceans, mountains, deserts, etc. Man enjoys these surroundings, adding to the quality of life.

Q.7 Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in India.
ANSWER:   Some of the factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occuring due to deforestation
2.  Unsustainable fuel wood and fodder extraction .
3.  Shifting cultivation
4. Encroachment into forest lands
5. Forest fires and over grazing
6. Non-adoption of adequate soil conservation measures.

Q.8 Explain how the opportunity costs of negative environmental impact are high.
ANSWER:   Opportunity cost is the cost of alternative opportunity given up. The country has to pay huge amount for damages done to human health. The health cost due to degraded environmental quality have resulted in diseases like asthma, cholera, etc. Huge expenditure is incurred in treat¬ing the diseases.

Q.9 Outline the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India.
ANSWER:   Steps and Strategies to Achieve Sustainable Development in India:

1.  Use of Non-Conventional Sources of Energy
2.  LPG, Gobar Gas in Rural Areas
3.  CNG in Urban Areas
4.  Wind Power
5. Solar Power through Photovoltaic Cells
6. Mini-Hydel Plants
7.  Traditional Knowledge and Practices
8.  Biocomposting
9.  Biopest Control.

Q.10 India has abundant natural r&ources—substantiate the statement.
ANSWER:  India has rich quality of natural resources in plenty. It is clear from the following points:

1.  India has rich quality of soil, hundreds of rivers and tributaries, lush green forests, abundant mineral deposits under the land surface, vast stretch of the Indian Ocean, mountain ranges, etc.
2.  The black soil of the Deccan Plateau is particularly suitable for cultivation of cotton. It has lead to concentration of textile industries in this region.
3.  The Indo-Gangetic plains — spread from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal — are one of the most fertile, intensively cultivated and densely populated regions in the world.
4.  India’s forests provide green cover for a majority of its population and natural cover for its
   wildlife.
5.  Large deposits of iron-ore, coal and natural gas are found in the country. India alone accounts for nearly 20 per cent of the world’s total iron-ore reserves.
6. Bauxite, copper, chromate, diamonds, gold, lead, lignite, manganese, zinc, uranium, etc. are also available in different parts of the country.

Q.11Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why?
ANSWER:  Yes, because India is suffering from population explosion. .

1.  India has approximately 20 per cent of livestock population on a mere 2.5 per cent of the world’s geographical area. The high density of population and livestock and the competing
   uses of land for forestry, agriculture, pastures, human settlements and industries exert an enormous pressure on the country’s finite land resources.
2.  The per capita forestland in the country is only 0.08 hectare. There is an excess felling of about 15 million cubic metre forests over the permissible limit. Indiscriminate felling of trees has led to destruction of forest cover.

Q.12 Give two instances of:
(a) Overuse of environmental resources
(b) Misuse of environmental resources.
ANSWER: 

1. There is massive overuse and misuse of environmental resources. Examples of overuse of environmental resources are deforestation and land degradation.
2.  Example of misuse of environmental resources are ozone depletion and global warming.

Q.13 (a) State any four pressing environmental concerns of India.
(b) Correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs — explain.
ANSWER:  (a) Pressing environmental concerns of India:

1.  Global Warming. Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of the increase in greenhouse gases due to industrialisation in recent times.
2.  Ozone Depletion. The depletion of ozone layer has been caused by high levels of chlorine and bromine compounds in the stratosphere. It causes skin cancer, and lowers the production of acquatic organisms.
3.  Environmental Crisis. The rising population of the developing countries and the affluent • , consumption and production standards of the developed world have put a great stress on the environment in terms of its functions of supplying resources and assimilating waste.
4.  Massive Overuse and Misuse of Environmental Resources. There is massive overuse and misuse of environmental resources which results in deforestation, land degradation, ozone depletion and global warming. .

(b) The correction of environmental damages involve huge opportunity cost. It is the cost of alternative opportunity given up. The country has to pay huge amount for damages done to human health. The helath cost due to degraded environmental quality have resulted in diseases like asthma, cholera, etc. Huge expenditure is incurred on treating the diseases.

Q14 Explain the supply-demand reversal of environmental resources.
ANSWER:  Supply Demand Reversal of Environmental Resources: –
The demand for resources for both production and consumption has gone beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources increasing the pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment. This reversal of the supply-demand relationship with demand for resources exceeding the supply has led to degeneration of the environment

Q.15Account for the current environmental crisis.
ANSWER: 

1. Land Degradation
2.  Biodiversity Loss
3.  Air Pollution
4.  Management of Fresh Water and Solid Waste.

Q.16. (a) Highlight any two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in India.
(b) India’s environmental problems pose a dichotomy — they are poverty induced and, at the same time, due to affluence in living standards—is this true?
ANSWER:   (a)

1.  Biodiversity Loss
   (i) India has approximately 20 per cent of livestock population on a mere 2.5 per cent of the world’s geographical area. The high density of population and livestock and the competing uses of land for forestry, agriculture, pastures, human settlements and industries exert an enormous pressure on the country’s finite land resources.
   (ii) The per capita forestland in the country is only 0.08 hectare. There is an excess felling of about 15 million cubic metre forests over the permissible limit. Indiscriminate felling of trees has led to destruction of forest cover.
2.  Air Pollution
   (i) In India, air pollution is widespread in urban areas where vehicles are the major contributors. Vehicular emissions are of particular concern since these are ground level sources and, thus, have the maximum impact on the general population. The number of motor vehicles has increased from about 3 lakh in 1951 to 67 crores in 2003.
   (ii) India is one of the ten most industrialised nations of the world. It has led to unplanned urbanisation, pollution and the risk of accidents.

(b) Dichotomy of the Threat to India’s Environment
The developmental activities in India have resulted in pressure on its finite natural resources, besides .creating impacts on human health and well-being. The threat to India’s environment poses a dichotomy—threat of poverty-induced environmental degradation and, at the same time, threat of pollution from affluence and a rapidly growing industrial sector. Air pollution, water contamination, soil erosion, deforestation and wildlife extinction are some of the most pressing environmental concerns of India.

Q.17What is sustainable development?
ANSWER:   Sustainable Development implies meeting the basic needs of everyone and extending to all the opportunity to satisfy their aspirations for better life, without compromising on the needs of future.

Q.18 Keeping in view your locality, describe any four strategies of sustainable development.
ANSWER:  Four strategies of sustainable development in my locality can be:

1. Solar energy should be put up.
2.  People should use less air conditioners.
3.  People should use herbal cosmetics.
4.  People should not use polythene bags, instead they must use bags made of paper.

Q.19 Explain the relevance of intergenerational equity in the definition of sustainable development.
ANSWER:  The Brundtland Commission emphasises on protecting the future generations. This is in line with the argument of the environmentalists who emphasise that we have a moral obligation to hand over the planet earth in good order to the future generations, i.e., the present generation should give better environment to the future generations, no less than what we have inherited.
According to the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) sustained development is, “Development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.”

Question And Answer:

Q.1 Explain the term ‘infrastructure’.
ANSWER: Infrastructure refers to the basic supporting structure which is built to provide different kinds of services in an economy. Infrastructural installations do not directly produce goods but help in promoting production activities in an economy. Examples of infrastructure are: transport, communication, banking, power etc.

Q.2 Explain the two categories into which infrastructure is divided. How are both interdependent?
ANSWER:  There are two types of infrastructure: (a) economic infrastructure, (b) social infrastructure.
Economic infrastructure directly supports the economic system from inside. Examples are energy, transport and communication. Social infrastructure indirectly supports the economic system from outside. Examples are health, education and housing.
Economic and social infrastructure are complementary to each other. Economic infrastructure improves the qualityof economic resources and raises the production, but it cannot be possible until population is literate to use them efficiently. Thus, both of them are needed for the growth and development of the country.

Q.3 How do infrastructure facilities boost production?
ANSWER:  The prosperity of a country depends directly upon the development of agricultural and industrial production. Agricultural production requires power, credit, transport facilities, etc.; the deficiency of which leads to fall in productivity. Industrial production requires machinery and equipment, energy, banking and insurance facilities, marketing facilities, transport services which include railways, roads and shipping and communication facilities etc. All these facilities help in raising agricultural and industrial productivity.

Q.4 Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country. Do you agree? Explain.
Answer. Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country and it is an important determinant of its growth and development. It raises productivity, induces investment in different areas of economic activity, raises size of the market, facilitates outsourcing and employment. Thus, it is an essential support system for the economic development of the country.

Q.5 What is the state of rural infrastructure in India?
ANSWER: A majority of people live in rural areas. The state of rural infrastructure in India is as follows:

1.  Rural women are still using bio-fuels such as crop residues, dung and fuel wood to meet their energy requirement.
2.  They walk long distances to fetch fuel, water and other basic needs.
3.  The census 2001 shows that in rural India only 56 per cent households have an electricity connection and 43 per cent still use kerosene. About 90 per cent of the rural households use bio-fuels for cooking.
4.  Tap water availability is limited to only 24 per cent of rural households. About 76 per cent of the population drinks water from open sources such as wells, tanks, ponds, lakes, rivers, canals, etc.
5.  Another study conducted by the National Sample Survey Organisation noted that by 1996, access to improved sanitation in rural areas was only 6 per cent.

Q.6 What is the significance of ‘energy’? Differentiate between commercial and non-commercial sources of energy.
ANSWER: Energy is a critical aspect of development process of a nation. It is essential for industries, agriculture and related areas like transportation of finished goods. It is also used for domestic purposes like cooking, lighting, heating, etc.
Difference between Commercial and Non-commercial Sources of Energy

Q.7 What are the three basic sources of generating power?
ANSWER:  Sources of generating power are:

1.  water—it gives hydroelectricity.
2. oil, gas, coal—they give thermal electricity.
3.  radioactive elements like uranium, plutonium—they give atomic power or nuclear power.

Q.8 What do you mean by transmission and distribution losses? How can they be reduced?
ANSWER:  Transmission and Distribution (T&D) losses refer to theft of power which has not been controlled.
Nation’s average loss is 23%.
T&D losses can be reduced by having:

1.  Appropriate size of conductors
2. Proper load management
3.  Meter supply
4.  Privatisation of distribution work
5.  Introduction of energy audits. Some steps have already been initiated in this direction.

Q.9 What are the various non-commercial sources of energy?
ANSWER:  Vegetable wastes, firewood and dried dung.

Q.10 Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy.
ANSWER: There is energy crises in the country. The demand for all commercial fuels is more than its supply.
Government is encouraging the use of hydel and wind energy.
Bio-gas generation programmes have been boosted up. For a tropical country like India, where sun is an abundant source, solar energy should be given highest priority.

Q.11How has the consumption pattern of energy changed over the years?
ANSWER: Pattern of energy consumption in India is as follows:

1. In India, different sources of energy are converted into a common unit ‘million tonne of oil equivalent’ (MTOE).
2. At present, commercial energy consumption is 65 per cent of total energy consumed in India.
3.  Goal has the largest share of 55 per cent, followed by oil at 31 per cent, natural gas at 11 per cent and hydro energy at 3 per cent.
4.  Non-commercial energy sources account for over 30 per cent of the total energy consumption.
5.  There is import dependence on crude and petroleum products, which is likely to grow to more than 100 per cent in the near future.
6.  Atomic energy is an important source of electric power. At present nuclear/atomic energy accounts for only 2.4 per cent of total primary energy consumption.

Q.12 How are the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth connected?
ANSWER: Energy is a critical aspect of development process of a nation. It is essential for industries, agriculture and related areas like transportation of finished goods. It is also used for domestic purposes like cooking, lighting, heating, etc. With economic growth, consumption of energy will rise.

Q.13 What problems are being faced by the power sector in India?
ANSWER: Emerging Challenges in the Power Sector:

1.  Insufficient Installed Capacity
2.  Underutilisation of Capacity
3.  Losses Incurred by SEBs
4.  Uncertain Role of Private Players
5.  Public Unrest
6.  Shortage of Raw Materials
7.  Unable to Cover up the Transmission and Distribution (T&D) Losses
8.  Operational Inefficiency
9. Incomplete Electrification
10.  Need to Conserve Energy.

Q.14 Discuss the reforms which have been initiated recently to meet the energy crisis in India.
ANSWER: The reforms to meet energy crisis in India:

1.  Improved Plant Load Factor. The Ministry of Power has launched the ‘Partnership in Excellence’ programme. In this 26 thermal stations (with PLF less than 60%) have Been taken up for improving the efficiency.
2.  Encourage Private Sector Participation. In order to overcome the problems of power sector, the government announced a policy in 1991 which allowed private sector participation in power generation and distribution schemes. It is important to resolve the problems arid difficulties and frame policies which can ensure effective participation of private sector in this sector.
3.  Promote the Use of CFLs to Conserve Energy. A new and advanced lighting technology called the Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) is a more efficient alternative to domestic energy consumption. According to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), the Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) consume 80 per cent less power as compared to ordinary bulbs.

Q.15 What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country?
ANSWER:  The main characteristics of health of people of our country:

1.  Decline in death rate to 8 per thousand in 2001.
2.  Reduction in infant mortality rate to 7 per thousand in 2001.
3.  Rise in life expectancy to 64 years in 2001.
4. Control over deadly diseases like cholera, smallpox, malaria, polio and leprosy.
5.  Fall in child mortality rate to 23 per thousand in 2001.

Q.16 What is a ‘global burden of disease’?
ANSWER:  Global Burden of Diseases (GBD) is an indicator used by experts to gauge the number of people dying prematurely, due to particular diseases as well as the number of years spent by them in a state of disability owing to the disease.

Q17 Discuss the main drawbacks of our health care system.
ANSWER:  Emerging Challenges in the Health:

1. High GBD
2.  Poor State of Primary Health Centres
3. Regional Bias—Urban-Rural Divide
4.  Income Bias—Poor-Rich Divide
5. Gender Bias—Poor Health of Women.
6.  Communicable diseases
7.  Poor Provision
8.  Privatisation

Q.18 How has women’s health become a matter of great concern?
ANSWER: Gender Bias—Poor Health of Women:

1.  There is growing incidence of female foeticide in the country. Close to 3,00,000 girls under the age of 15 are not only married but have already borne children at least once.
2.  More than 50 per cent of married women between the age group of 15 and 49 suffer from anaemia caused by iron deficiency. It has contributed to 19 per cent of maternal deaths.

Q.19 Describe the meaning of public health. Discuss the major public health measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases.
ANSWER:  Public health refers to the health status of all the people of the country.
Some measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases are:

1.  Success in the long-term battle against diseases depends on education and efficient health infrastructure. It is, therefore, critical to create awareness on health and hygiene systems.
2.  The role of telecom and IT sectors cannot be neglected in this process.
3.  The effectiveness of health care programmes also rests on primary centres. Efforts should be made to make PHCs more efficient.
4. Encouragement should be given to private-public partnership. They can effectively ensure reliability, quality and affordability of both drugs and medical care.

Q.20 List out the six systems of Indian medicine.
ANSWER: AYUSH means:
A : Ayurveda
Y : Yoga and Naturopathy
U : Unani
S : Siddha H : Homoeopathy.

Q.21 How can we increase the effectiveness of health care programmes?
ANSWER: Health is a vital public good and a basic human right. All citizens can get better health facilities if public health services are decentralised. Some measures that should be taken are:

1.  Success in the long-term battle against diseases depends on education and efficient health infra-structure. It is, therefore, critical to create awareness on health and hygiene systems.
2.  The role of telecom and IT sectors cannot be neglected in this process.
3.  The effectiveness of health care programmes also rests on primary centres. Efforts should be tnade to make PHCs more efficient.
4.  Encouragement should be given to private-public partnership. They can effectively ensure
   reliability, quality and affordability of both drugs and medical care. .

Question And Answer:

Q.1Who is a worker?
ANSWER: A worker is an individual who is doing some productive employment to earn a living.

Q.2 Define worker-population ratio.
ANSWER: Workforce Participation Rate (or ratio)

Participation ratio is defined as the percentage of total population which is actually participating in productive activity. It is also called workers-population ratio. It indicates the employment situation of the country. A high ratio means that more proportion of population is actively contributing to the production of goods and services of a country.

Q.3 Are the following workers — a beggar, a thief, a smuggler, a gambler? Why?
ANSWER:  No, they are not workers because they, are not doing any productive activity.

Q.4 Find the odd man out (i) owner of a saloon with more than 10 employees (ii) a cobbler
(iii) a cashier in Mother Dairy (iv) a tuition master (v) transport operator (vi) construction worker.
ANSWER: Owner of a saloon

Q.5 The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the sector (service/manufacturing).
ANSWER: .Service.

Q.6.An establishment with four hired workers is known as (formal/informal) sector establishment.
ANSWER: Informal.

Q.7 Raj is going to school. When he is not in school, you will find him working in his farm. Can you consider him as a worker? Why?
ANSWER: .Raj is disguisedly unemployed.

Q.8 Compared to urban women, mSre rural women are found working. Why?
ANSWER: Participation rate for women is higher in rural areas compared with urban areas. It is because in rural areas, poverty forces women to seek employment. Without education, women in rural areas find only less productive jobs and get low wages.
In urban areas, men are able to earn high incomes. So they discourage female members from taking up jobs

Q.9 Meena is a housewife. Besides taking care of household chores, she works in the cloth shop which is owned and operated by her husband. Can she be considered as a worker? Why?
ANSWER: Meena is a self-employed worker. She is working in her husband’s cloth shop. She will not get salary.

Q.10 Find the odd man out (i) rickshaw puller who works under a rickshaw owner (ii) mason (iii) mechanic shop worker (iv) shoeshine boy.
ANSWER: Shoeshine boy.

Q.11The following table shows distribution of workforce in India for the year 1972-73. Analyse it and give reasons for the nature of workforce distribution. You will notice that the data is pertaining to the situation in India 30 years ago.

Place of Residence	Workforce(in millions)
	Male	Femal	Total
Rural	125	70	195
Urban	32	7	39

ANSWER: In 1972-73, out of total workforce of 234 million, 195 million was in rural areas and 39 million in urban areas. It shows 83% workforce lived in rural areas. Gender differences were also observed. In rural areas, males accounted for 125 million workforce and women 70 million of workforce. In urban areas, 32 million males formed the workforce whereas women workforce was only 7 million. In the country only 77 million female workers were there as compared to 157 million male workers. In other words, 32% of female workers were there and 68% male workers were there in the country in 1972-73. The data shows:
(a) pre dominance of agriculture.
(b) more male workers both in urban and rural areas.
(c) less female workers in both rural and urban areas. Also, female workers were much lesser in urban areas.

Q.12The following table shows the population and worker population ratio for India in 1999-2000. Can you estimate the workforce (urban and total) for India?

Region	Estimation of Population ( in crores)	Workers Population	Estimated Workers (in crores)
Rural	71.88	41.99	(71.88/100)x41.9 = 30.12
Urban	28.52	33.7	?
Total	100.40	39.5	?

ANSWER:  Estimated number of workers (in crores) for urban =28.52100 x 33.7 = 9.61 crores
Total workforce = 30.12 + 9.61 = 39.73 crores

Q.13Why are regular salaried employees more in urban areas than in rural areas?
ANSWER:  In urban areas, a considerable section is able to study in various educational institutions. Urban people have a variety of employment opportunities. They are able to look for an appropriate job to suit their qualifications and skills.J3ut in rural areas, people cannot stay at home as they are economically poor.

Q.14 Why are less women found in regular salaried employment?
ANSWER:  Female workers give preference to self-employment than to hired employment. It is because women, both in rural and urban areas, are less mobile and thus, prefer to engage themselves in self-employment.

Q.15 Analyse the recent trends in sectoral distribution of workforce in India.
ANSWER: l.The data in occupational structure is as follows (for the year 1999-2000):
(a) Industry wise the distribution is:
(i) 37.1% of workforce is engaged in primary sector.
(ii) 18.7% of workforce is engaged in secondary sector.
(iii) 44.2% of workforce is engaged in tertiary sector.
(b) Area wise the data is:
(i) In rural areas:
77% of workforce is in primary sector.
11% of workforce is in secondary sector.
12% of workforce is in tertiary sector.
(ii) In urban areas:
10% of workforce is in primary sector.
31% of workforce is in secondary sector.
59% of workforce is in tertiary sector.
2. The data reveals that:
(a) Economic backwardness in the country as 60% of workforce is engaged in agricultural activities. A large proportion of population depend on agriculture for their livelihood.
(b) In urban area, tertiary sector account for 59% of workforce. It shows development and growth in the tertiary sector and the fact that this sector is able to generate sustainable employment and provide livelihood to 59% of the workforce.
3. It can be concluded that in the urban areas, tertiary sector is the main source of livelihood for majority of workforce.

Q.16 Compared to the 1970s, ’there has hardly been any change in the distribution of workforce across various industries. Comment.
ANSWER:  It is true that no much change is observed in the distribution of workforce across various industries. It is because the plans did not emphasise the need for development of:
(a) non-agricultural rural employment industries.
(b) small scale, village and cottage industries.

Q.17 Do you think that in the last 50 years, employment generated in the country is commensurate with the growth of GDP in India? How?
ANSWER:  Jobless growth is defined as a situation in which there is an overall acceleration in the growth rate of GDP in the economy which is not accompanied by a commensurate expansion in employment opportunities.This means that in an economy, without generating additional employment we have been able to produce more goods and services. Since the starting of economic reforms in 1991, our economy is experiencing a gap between GDP growth rate and employment growth rate that is, jobless growth.

Q.18 Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
ANSWER:  With economic reforms in 1991, there has been significant rise in informalisation of workers. Since informal workers face uncertainties of making of living, it is surprising that such a high percentage of total workforce prefer to be employed in the informal sector. All necessary steps should be taken to generate employment in the formal sector, which is only 7% at present.

Q.19 Victor is able to get work only for two hours in a day. Rest of the day, he is looking for work. Is hie unemployed? Why? What kind of jobs could persons like Victor be doing?
ANSWER:  No. he is employed because Victor has work for 2 hours daily for which he gets paid. He is a casual worker.

Q.20 You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advice the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment.
ANSWER:  Digging of wells, fencing, building roads and houses, etc.

Q.21 Who is a casual wage labourer?
ANSWER: Those people who are not hired by their employers on a regular/permanent basis and do not get social security benefits are said to be casual workers. Example: construction workers.

ANSWER:  Informal Sector:
(a) It is an unorganised sector of an economy which includes all those private sector enterprises which employ less than 10 workers. Example: agriculture labourers, farmers, owners of small enterprises, etc.
(b) The workers of this sector are called informal workers.
(c) The workers are not entitled to social security benefits.
(d) The workers cannot form trade union and are not protected by labour laws.

Q.1 What do you mean by rural development? Bring out the key issues in rural development.
ANSWER: Rural development is a comprehensive term which essentially focuses on action for the development of areas that are lagging behind in the overall development of the village economy.
Some of the areas which are in need of fresh initiatives for rural development are:

1.  Development of human resources like literacy, more specifically, female literacy, education and skill development.
2.  Development of human resources like health, addressing both sanitation and public health.
3.  Honest implementation of land reforms.
4.  Development of the productive resources in each locality.
5.  Infrastructure development like electricity, irrigation, credit, markseting, transport facilities including construction of village roads and feeder roads to nearby highways, facilities for agriculture research-and extension, and information dissemination.
6.  Special measures for alleviation of poverty and bringing about significant improvement in the living conditions of the weaker sections of the population.

Q.2 Discuss the importance of credit in rural development.
  ANSWER: Farmers need money to buy additional land, implements and tools, fertilizers and seeds, paying off old debt, personal expenses like marriage, death, religious ceremonies, etc. Since the gestation period between crop sowing and realisation of income after sale of agricultural produce is very long, farmers need to take credit.

Q.3 Explain the role of micro-credit in meeting credit requirements of the poor.
  ANSWER:  SHGs (Self-Help Groups) and micro credit programmes promote thrift in small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member. From the pooled money, credit needs are fulfilled. The member have to repay the credit in small instalments at low rate of interest. The borrowings are mainly for consumption purposes.

Q.4 Explain the steps taken by the government in developing rural markets.
  ANSWER: The government has taken various steps for improving agricultural marketing system. These are:

1.  Establishment of Regulated Markets. Government has formed regulated markets to remove most of the evils of an unorganised market system.
   Functions of regulated markets are:
   (i) Enforcement of standard weights.
   (ii) Fixation of charges, fees, etc.
   (iii) Settling of disputes among the operating parties in the market.
   (iv) Prevention of unlawful deductions and control of wrong practices of middlemen.
   (v) Providing reliable market information.
2.  Provision of Infrastructural Facilities. The government has taken measures to develop ; infrastructural facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units.
3.  Co-operative Market. Co-operative marketing is a measure to ensure a fair price to fanners. Member farmers sell their surplus to the co-operative society which substitutes collective bargaining in place of individual bargaining. It links rural credit farming marketing processes to the best advantage of the farmers.
4.  Important Instruments to Safeguard the Interests of Farmers. The Government has also developed some instruments to safeguard the interests of farmers. These instruments are:
5.  Fixation of Minimum Support Price (MSP)
   (ii) Buffer Stock
   (iii) Public Distribution System (PDS).

Q.5 Why is agricultural diversification essential for sustain-able livelihoods?
  ANSWER:  Diversification into non-farm activities is important because it will:

1. reduce the risk from agriculture sector.
2.  provide sustainable livelihood options to people living in villages.
3. provide ecological balance.

Q.6 Critically evaluate the role of the rural banking system in the process of rural development in India.
  ANSWER: Since 1969, when the nationalisation of commercial banks took place, rural banking has expanded a great deal. Significant expansion of rural banking system played a positive role in:

1.  Raising farm and non-farm output by providing services and credit facilities to farmers.
2.  Providing long term loans with better repayment options. It, thus helped in eliminating moneylenders from the scene.
3.  Generating credit for self-employment schemes in rural areas.
4. Achieving food security which is clear from the abundant buffer stocks of grains.

Limitations of rural banking are:

1.  The sources of institutional finance are inadequate to meet the requirements of agricultural credit. Farmers still depend on money-lenders for their credit needs.
2.  There exist regional inequalities in the distribution of institutional credit.
3. Rural banking is suffering from the problems of large amount of overdues and default rate.
4.  Small and marginal farmers receive only a very small portion of the institutional credit. A large portion of institutional credit is taken away by the rich farmers.

Q.7 What do you mean by agricultural marketing?
  ANSWER: Agricultural Marketing is defined as a process of marketing farm produce through wholesalers and stockists to ultimate consumers.

Q.8 Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing.
  ANSWER:  Defects of Agricultural Marketing are :

1.  Inadequate Warehouses
2.  Multiplicity of Middlemen
3.  Malpractices in Unregulated Markets
4.  Improper Measuring for Weighing, Grading and Standardisation
5.  Lack of Adequate Finance
6.  Inadequate means of Transport and Communication
7.  Inadequate Market Information.

Q.9 What are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing? Give some examples.
  ANSWER:  In India, alternative marketing channels are emerging. Through these channels farmers directly
sell their produce to the consumers. This system increases farmers’, share in the price paid by the consumers. Important examples of such channels are: (a) Apani Mandi (Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan), (b) Hadaspar Mandi (Pune); Rythu Bazars (Vegetable and fruit market in Andhra Pradesh) and (c) Uzhavar Sandies (Tamil Nadu), (d) Several national and international fast food chains and hotels are also entering into contracts with the farmers to supply them fresh vegetables and fruits.

Q.10 Explain the term ‘Golden Revolution’.
  ANSWER: The period between 1991-2003 is called ‘Golden Revolution’ because during this period, the planned investment in horticulture became highly productive and the sector emerged as a sustainable livelihood option. India has emerged as a world leader in producing a variety of fruits like mangoes, bananas, coconuts, cashew nuts and a number of spices and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables.

Q.11 Explain four measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing.
  ANSWER:  The government has taken various steps for improving agricultural marketing system. These are:

1.  Establishment of Regulated Markets. Government has formed regulated markets to remove most of the evils of an unorganised market system. Functions of regulated markets are:
   (i) Enforcement of standard weights.
   (ii) Fixation of charges, fees, etc.
   (iii) Settling of disputes among the operating parties in the market.
   (iv) Prevention of uMawful deductions and control of wrong practices of middlemen.
   (v) Providing reliable market information.
2.  Provision of Infrastructural Facilities. The government has taken measures to develop infrastructural facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units.
3.  Co-operative Market. Co-operative marketing is a measure to ensure a fair price to farmers. Member farmers sell their surplus to the co-operative society which substitutes collective bargaining in place of individual bargaining. It links rural credit farming marketing processes to the best advantage of the farmers.
4.  Important Instruments to Safeguard the Interests of Farmers. The Government has also developed some instruments to safeguard the interests of farmers. These instruments are:
   (i) Fixation of Minimum Support Price (MSP)
   (ii) Buffer Stock
   (iii) Public Distribution System (PDS).

Q.12 Explain the role of non-farm employment in promoting rural diversification.
  ANSWER: The non-farm sectors include agro-processing industries, food processing industries, leather industry, tourism, etc. Some other sectors which have the potential but lack infrastructure are traditional household-based industries like pottery, crafts, handlooms, etc.

Q.13 Bring out the importance of animal husbandry, fisheries and horticulture as a source of diversification.
  ANSWER:

1. Animal Husbandry
   (a) In India, the farming community uses the mixed crop-livestock farming system—cattle, goats, fowl are the widely held species.
   (b) This system provides increased stability in income, food security, transport, fuel and nutrition for the family without disrupting other food-producing activities.
   (c) Today, livestock sector alone provides alternate livelihood options to over 70 million small and marginal farmers including landless labourers.
   (d) Poultry accounts for the largest share. It is 42 per cent of total livestock in India.
   (e) Milk production in the country has increased by more than four times between 1960-2002.
   (f) Meat, eggs, wool and other by-products are also emerging as important productive sectors for diversification.
2.  Fisheries
   (a) The fishing community regards the water body as ‘mother’ or ‘provider’. The water bodies consist of sea, oceans, rivers, lakes, natural aquatic ponds, streams, etc.
   (b) Presently, fish production from inland sources contributes about 49 per cent to the total fish production and the balance 51 per cent comes from the marine sector (sea and oceans). Today total fish production accounts for 1.4 per cent of the total GDP.
   (c) Among states, Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are the major producers of marine products.
3. Horticulture
   (a) Due to varying climate and soil conditions, India has adopted growing of diverse horticultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crpps..
   (b) These crops play an important role in providing food, nutrition and employment.
   (c) India has emerged as a world leader in producing a variety of fruits like mangoes, bananas, coconuts, cashew, nuts and a number of spices and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
   (d) Flower harvesting, nursery maintenance, hybrid seed production and tissue culture, propagation of fruits and flowers and food processing are highly profitable employment opportunities for rural women. It has been estimated that this sector provides employment to around 19 per cent of the total labour force.

Q.14 ‘Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security’—comment.
  ANSWER:  Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security in the following ways:

1.  It can act as a tool for releasing the creative potential and knowledge embedded in our poeple.
2.  Issues like weather forecast, crop treatment, fertilizers, pesticides, storage conditions, etc. can be well administered if expert opinion is made available to the farmers.
3.  The quality and quantity of crops can be increased manifold if the farmers are made aware of the latest equipments, technologies and resources.
4.  IT has ushered in a knowledge economy.
5.  It has potential of employment generation in rural areas.

Q.15 What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development?
  ANSWER: Organic farming is a system of farming that maintains, enhances and restores the ecological balance.
Need for organic farming arises because:

1. In the past, modem farming methods made excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. It led to soil, water and air pollution, loss of soil fertility and too much chemical contents in foodgrains.
2.  There is urgency to conserve the environment and eco-system and promote sustainable development.
3.  Organic farming is an inexpensive farming technology. It can be purchased by small and marginal farmers.

Q.16 Identify the benefits and limitations of organic farming. .
  ANSWER: The advantages of organic farming are:

1.  Inexpensive Process. Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs (such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc.) with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate more return on investment.
2.  Generates Income. It generates income through international exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise.
3.  Healthier and Tastier Food. Organically grown food has more nutritional value than food grown with chemical farming. It, thus, provides us with healthy foods.
4.  Solves Unemployment Problem. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming, it will solve unemployment problem.
5.  Environment Friendly. The produce is pesticide-free and produced in an environmentally sustainable way.

Limitations of organic farming are:

1.  It has been observed that the yield from organic farming is much less than modern agricultural farming. Thus, goods produced organically command a higher price.
2. Small and marginal farmers may not adapt to this type of farming due to lack of awareness and limited choice of alternate production in off-seasons.
3.  Organic produce may have a shorter shelf life.

Q.17 Enlist some problems faced by farmers during the initial years of organic farming.
  ANSWER:

1.  Organic farming requires:
   (a) Organic Manure
   (b) Bio-fertilizers
   (c) Organic Pesticides
   Although they are cheaper to qjatain, yet farmers find it difficult to get them.
2.  The yield from organic farming is much less than modem agricultural farming.
3. The price of organic foods is high, so it is difficult to sell them.
4.  Organic produce generally has a shorter shelf life.

Question And Answer:

Q.1What are the two major sources of human capital in a country?

ANSWER:Two main sources of human capital are investment in education and health.

Q.2 What are the indicators of educational achievement in a country?
ANSWER: Educational attainment is measured by primary education, youth literacy and adult literacy.

Q.3 Why do we observe regional differences in educational attainment in India?
ANSWER: Regional differences in educational attainment in India is due to :

1.  inequality of income
2.  expenditure by the government in education facilities.

Q.4 Bring out the differences between human capital and human development.
ANSWER: Difference between Human Capital and Human Development

Human Capital
1. Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity.
2. Human capital is a narrow concept which treats human beings as a means to achieve an end which is higher productivity, failing which the investment is not considered to be productive.

Human Development
1. Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being since only when people have the ability to read and apply their knowledge to derive maximum benefit they will be able to lead a long and healthy life.
2. Human development is a broader concept which considers human beings as ends in themselves. Human welfare can be achieved through investments in education and health. It considers welfare — a right of every individual irrespective of their contribution to labour productivity. Every individual has right to be literate and lead a healthy life.

Q.5 How is human development a broader term as compared to human capital?
ANSWER:

1. Human capital is a narrow concept which treats human beings as a means to achieve an end which is higher productivity, failing which the investment is not considered to be productive.
2.  Human development is a broader concept which considers human beings as ends in themselves. Human welfare can be achieved through investments in education and health. It considers welfare—a right of every individual irrespective of their contribution to labour productivity. Every individual has right to be literate and lead a healthy life.

Q.6 What factors contribute to human capital formation?
ANSWER: .Sources of Human Capital Formation :

1.  Expenditure on Education
2.  Training
3.  Expenditure on Health
4.  Migration
5.  Expenditure on Information.

Q.7 Mention two government organisations each that regulate the health and education sectors.
ANSWER: n India, the ministries of education at the Centre and State level, departments of education and
various organisations such as National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT),
University Grants Commission (UGC) and All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) regulate the education sector. Similarly, the ministries of health at the Union and State level, departments of health and various organisations like Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) regulate the health sector.

Q.8 Education is considered an important input for the development of a nation. How?
or
Examine the role of education in the economic development of a nation.
ANSWER:  Expenditure on education is an important source of capital formation. Education is an important source of human capital formation, because:

1.  It generates technical skills and creates a manpower which is suited for improving labour productivity. It, thus, results in sustained economic development.
2.  It tends to bring down birth rate which, in turn, brings decline in population growth rate. It makes more resources available per person.
3.  It results in social benefits since it spreads to others who may not be skilled. Thus, investment in education leads to higher returns in future.

Q.9 Discuss the following’as a sources of human capital formation
(a) Health infrastructure
(b) Expenditure on migration.
ANSWER:

1. Health Infrastructure. Health is another important source of human capital formation. Preventive medicine (vaccination), curative medicine (medical intervention during illness), social medicine (spread of health literacy) and provision of clean drinking water and good sanitation are the various forms of health expenditure. Health expenditure directly increases the supply of healthy labour force and is, thus, a source of human capital formation.
2. Migration. People sometimes migrate from one place to the other in search of better job. It includes
   migration of people from rural areas to urban areas in India and migration of technical personnel from India to qther countries of the world. Migration in both these cases involves cost of transport, higher cost of living in the migrated places and psychic costs of living in a strange socio-cultural set-up. The enhanced earnings in the new place outweigh the costs of migration. Expenditure on migration is also a source of capital formation.

Q.10 Establish the need for acquiring information relating to health and education expenditure for the effective utilisation of human resources.
ANSWER: People need to have information on the cost and benefit of investment in health and education. When people know the benefits of their investment in these two areas, they make more expenditure. The result is more human capital formation.

Q.11 How does investment in human capital contribute to growth?
ANSWER:  Role of Human Capital Formation in Economic Growth:

1. Raises Production .
2.  Raises Efficiency and Productivity
3.  Brings Positive Changes in Outlook and Attitudes
4.  Improves Quality of Life
5.  Raises Life Expectancy
6. Raises Social Justice.

Q.12 ‘There is a downward trend in inequality world-wide with a rise in the average education levels.Comment.
ANSWER: This is true, because education makes everyone equal and they earn similar salaries. It reduces inequalities of income world wide.

Q.13 Explain how investment in education stimulates economic growth. (or)
Explain the role of education in the development of a country.
ANSWER:  Education is an important source of human capital formation. Investment in education stimulates economic development in the following ways:

1.  Raises production. Knowledgeable and skilled workers can make better use of resources at their disposal. It will increase production in the economy. An educated and trained person can apply his knowledge and skill at farm, factory and office to increase production.
2.  Raises efficiency and productivity. Investment in education increases efficiency and productivity, and hence yields higher income to the people.
3.  Brings positive changes in outlook and attitudes. Knowledgeable and skilled people have modem outlook and attitudes, that they make rational choice in respect of places and jobs.
4.  Improves quality of life. Education improves quality of life as it provides better job, high income and improves health. It results in better standard of living.

Q.14 Bring out the need forjm-the-j ob-training for a person.
ANSWER: Technical training adds to the capacity of the people to produce more. Firms given on-the-job- training to enhance the productive skills of the workers so as to enable them to absorb new technologies and modem ideas. It can be given in two forms:

1.  The workers may be trained in the firm itself under the assistance of a senior and experienced worker.
2.  The workers may be sent off the firm campus for the training.

Q.15 Trace the relationship between human capital and economic growth.
ANSWER: Human capital formation raises the process of economic growth and economic growth raises the process of human capital formation. There is a cause and effect relationship between human capital and economic growth. It is shown in the figure.

Q.16 Discuss the need for promoting women’s education in India.
ANSWER:  Women Education Council has been set up to provide technical education to the women. It has
set up many women polytechnics. It is essential to promote women’s education in India to:

1.  improve women’s economic independence and their social status.
2.  make a favourable impact on fertility rate and health care of women and children.

Q.17 Argue in favour of the need for different forms of government intervention in education and health sectors.
ANSWER: Government intervention in education and health sectors is necessary because of the following reasons:

1.  Education and health care services create both private as well as social benefits. Both private and public institutions are needed to provide these services and government must keep its control on them.
2.  Expenditure on education and health institutes are important for the growth of a nation. The private providers of education and health services need to be regulated by the government.

Q.18 What are the main problems of human capital formation in India?
ANSWER: Main problems of human capital formation in India are:

1. Rising Population. Rapidly rising population adversely affects the quality of human capital formation in developing countries. It reduces per capita availability of existing facilities. A large population requires huge investment in education and health. This diverts the scarce money to production of human capital at the cost of physical capital.
2. Long Term Process. The process of human development is a long term policy because skill formation takes time. The process which produces skilled manpower is thus slow.
3.  High Regional and Gender Inequality. Regional and gender inequality lowers the human development levels.
4. Brain Drain. Migration of highly skilled labour termed as “Brain Drain” adversely affects the economic development.
5.  Insufficient on-the-job-training in agriculture. Agriculture sector is neglected where the workers are not given on-the-job training to absorb emerging new technologies.
6.  High Poverty Levels. A large proportion of the population lives below poverty line and do not have access to basic health and educational facilities. A large section of society cannot afford to get higher education or expensive medical treatment for major disease.

Q.19 In your view, is it essential for the government to regulate the fee structure in education and health care institutions? If so, why?
ANSWER:  Yes, government intervention is necessary in regulating the fee structure in education and health care institutions:

1. to maintain uniformity
2. to have accountability
3.  to help poorer people.

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-8 The Tale of Melon City NCERT MCQ for Class 11 English Snapshot which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE TALE OF MELON CITY

Question 1 : “This is a disgrace.” What was a disgrace?
a) Poorly built arch
b) Unenthusiastic crowd
c) Crown being stroked
d) None of the above

Answer :  C

Question 2 : After reading “The Tale of the Melon City”, what opinion do you form of the King?
a) He was a just King
b) He was a rule abiding King
c) He was a foolish King
d) He was a wise King

Answer :  C

Question 3: Do you think that the King took his ‘notion of justice’ too far?
a) No, he did what a just King would do
b) Maybe
c) Yes, he lost his life in the process
d) Can not determine

Answer :  C

Question 4 : What order did the King give after the incident?
a) He ordered workmen to be hanged
b) He ordered to hang the chief of builders
c) He ordered to summon the architect
d) He ordered to gather all people

Answer :  B

Question 5 : Who did the chief of builders blame?
a) The public
b) The architect
c) The masons
d) The workmen

Answer :  D

Question 6 : What is most important to the public of the state?
a) Their peace and liberty
b) How the state is ruled
c) Their wealth
d) Their involvement in state decisions

Answer :  A

Question 7 : What reason did the workmen give to the King?
a) Instructions given were wrong
b) Time provided was less
c) Bricks were of the wrong size
d) Changes were made at the last point

Answer :  C

Question 8: According to the architect, who made the amendments?
a) The King
b) The chief of the builders
c) He himself
d) The masons

Answer :  A

Question 9: Why did the idiot reply the way he did?
a) Because he liked melons
b) Because he rode horses
c) Because he knew how to use sword
d) Because he grew melons

Answer :  A

Question 10: Who was to choose the next King?
a) The next to pass the City Gate
b) The Ministers
c) The public
d) The heir of the deceased King would be the king by rule

Answer :  A

Question 11 : Who passed the City Gate?
a) An old wise man
b) An idiot
c) A beggar
d) A child

Answer :  B

Question 12 : What sort of perception does the public hold for their chosen King after so many years?
a) They don’t like him
b) They are enraged
c) They like him very much
d) They have no problem whatsoever

Answer :  D

Question 13: Who according to the counsel was the culprit that was brought before the King?
a) The King
b) The crown
c) The arch
d) The chief of the builders

Answer :  C

Question 14 : “The Tale of the Melon City” is written by __________.
a) Amitav Ghosh
b) Arundhati Roy
c) Vikram Seth
d) Idries Shah

Answer :  C

Question 15 : What was the public demand that the King sought to fulfill?
a) They wanted no one to be hanged
b) They wanted a hanging
c) They wanted the arch to be demolished
d) The wanted a new king

Answer :  B

In This Post we are  providing Chapter- 7 Birth NCERT MCQ for Class 11 English Snapshot which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON BIRTH

Q1. How long did it take for Andrew’s efforts to yield results?

(i) Fifteen minutes
(ii) All efforts went into vain
(iii) One hour
(iv) Half an hour

Answer (iv) Half an hour

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Q2. Why did the child become slippery in Andrew’s hand?

(i) Because of atmosphere in the room
(ii) Because Andrew was losing his focus
(iii) Because of constant juggling between waters
(iv) None of the above

Answer (iii) Because of constant juggling between waters

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Q3. How does the author describe the bedroom of Joe’s house?

(i) Well furnished
(ii) Poorly furnished
(iii) Dirty
(iv) Both (ii) and (iii)

Answer (ii) Poorly furnished

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Q4. But her hands were together, her lips moved without sound.” Who is her?

(i) Susan
(ii) Midwife
(iii) Mrs. Morgan’s mother
(iv) Not clear from the story

Answer (iii) Mrs. Morgan’s mother

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Q5. What does the author refer to as ‘a miracle’?

(i) Life getting into the stillborn
(ii) Morgan family welcoming a child
(iii) Susan getting consciousness
(iv) None of the above

Answer (i) Life getting into the stillborn

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Q6. Where did Joe Morgan live?

(i) Number 11, Blaina Terrace
(ii) Number 14, Bryngower
(iii) Number 12, Blaina Terrace
(iv) Number 12, Bryngower

Answer (iii) Number 12, Blaina Terrace

---

Q7. During the whole incident, Joe did not enter the house. Why?

(i) Because he was superstitious
(ii) Because he didn’t want to disturb
(iii) Because he didn’t want to see the child
(iv) Because he was anxious

Answer (iv) Because he was anxious

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Q8. Why did Andrew get oblivious to all the work he had done in Blaenelly?

(i) Because he got all hopeless
(ii) Because he did something extraordinary that night
(iii) Because he was leaving Blaenelly
(iv) Because he got tired

Answer (ii) Because he did something extraordinary that night

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Q9. Who was waiting for Andrew at midnight?

(i) Dr. Edward
(ii) Christine
(iii) Joe Morgan
(iv) Mrs. Morgan’s mother

Answer (iii) Joe Morgan

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Q10. Why is the lesson named “Birth”?

(i) Because the doctor is specialist in childbirths
(ii) Because a lot of childbirths take place
(iii) Because it is about birth of a child
(iv) Because it talks about philosophy of life

Answer (iii) Because it is about birth of a child

---

Q11. After how many years were Joe and Susan blessed with a child?

(i) Ten years
(ii) One year
(iii) Five years
(iv) Twenty years

Answer (iv) Twenty years

---

Q12. Andrew did his medical practice under the assistance of

(i) Dr. Page
(ii) Dr. Morgan
(iii) Dr. William
(iv) Dr. Shane

Answer (iii) Dr. William

---

Q13. What can you say about Dr. Andrew after reading “Birth”?

(i) He did not put all his efforts
(ii) He fulfilled his obligations well as a doctor
(iii) His skills were not enough
(iv) He was arrogant

Answer (ii) He fulfilled his obligations well as a doctor

---

Q14. Birth of Susan’s child was a turning point in Dr. Andrew’s life. Do you agree?

(i) Absolutely
(ii) Not at all
(iii) Partially

(iv) Half

Answer (i) Absolutely

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Q15. Who is the author of “Birth”?

(i) A.J. Cornin
(ii) J.B. Priestley
(iii) Andrew Manson
(iv) Edward Page

Answer (i) A.J. Cornin

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter-6 The Ghat of the only World NCERT MCQ for Class 11 English Snapshot which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON THE GHAT OF THE ONLY WORLD

1. When did Shahid and the author become friends in a real sense?

(a) When they studied in the Delhi University(b) When Shahid moved to Brooklyn(c) When the author moved to Boston(d) When they stayed in the same hostel

Answer► (b) When Shahid moved to Brooklyn

2. Shahid described ‘the view of the Brooklyn waterfront slipping into the East River’ as a _______.

(a) fountain(b) waterfall(c) ghat(d) mountain

Answer ► (c) ghat

3. Shahid and the author had shared love for ________

.(a) Kishore Kumar(b) Rogan josh(c) Roshnara Begum(d) All of the above

Answer ► (d) All of the above

4. Shahid wanted to go to ______ during his last days.

(a) Kathmandu(b) New York(c) Kashmir(d) Karachi

Answer ► (c) Kashmirurn

5.Once in his childhood, what did Shahid’s mother help to create in his room?

(a) A Hindu temple(b) A holy scripture of Hindu(c) A painting of Hindu god(d) None of the above

Answer ► (a) A Hindu temple

6. Agha Shahid Ali was undergoing a treatment for ___________.

(a) psoriasis(b) dengue(c) cancer(d) malaria

Answer ► (c) cancer

7. Shahid’s parents continued to live in __________.

(a) Boston(b) Srinagar(c) Kathmandu(d) Jammu

Answer ► (b) Srinagar

8. What did Shahid describe as “the happiest time of his life”?

(a) His time in Nalanda University(b) His time at Penn State(c) His time at Manhattan’s college(d) His time at New York University

Answer ► (b) His time at Penn State

9. When did Shahid pass away?

(a) 14 April 2001(b) 11 September 2001(c) 8 December 2001(d) 6 June 2001

Answer ► (c) 8 December 2001

10. The author has described Shahid as a _________ person

.(a) unsociable(b) intelligent(c) sociable(d) optimistic

Answer ► (c) sociable

11. What was Shahid’s reaction when he got to know that ‘there was not much hope’?

(a) He was calm and untroubled(b) He panicked(c) He isolated himself(d) He got depressed

Answer ► (a) He was calm and untroubled

12. “The Ghat of the Only World” is written by the author as a promise to his _______

.(a) mother(b) friend(c) father(d) neighbour

Answer ► (b) friend

13. Who had a great influence on Shahid’s poetry?

(a) John Keats(b) Gwendolyn Brooks(c) James Merrill(d) Roshnara Begum

Answer ► (c) James Merrill

14. According to the author, what was the most impressive work of Shahid?

(a) Boston Airport(b) The Country Without a Post Office(c) His writings of Kashmir(d) None of the above

Answer ► (b) The Country Without a Post Office

15. Shahid passed away while he was ______.

(a) writing(b) cooking(c) asleep(d) driving

Answer ► (c) asleep

In This Post we are  providing Chapter-5 Mother’s Day NCERT MCQ for Class 11 English Snapshot which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON MOTHER’S DAY

Question 1.
What message does the author of “Mother’s Day” try to convey?
(a) To appreciate wives/ mothers for their work
(b) To work hard for your mother
(c) To spend time with family
(d) To respect everyone

Answer: (a) To appreciate wives/ mothers for their work

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Question 2.
What does Mrs.Pearson suggest them to do for that night?
(a) Family game of rummy
(b) Getting the supper ready
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

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Question 3.
Mrs. Pearson’s family had been _________ towards Mrs. Pearson.
(a) respectful
(b) polite
(c) biased
(d) unappreciative

Answer: (d) unappreciative

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Question 4.
What does George mean when he says ‘we’re at sixes and sevens here’?
(a) In a state of confusion and disorder
(b) In a middle of a conflict
(c) In a middle of taking a decision
(d) In a state of agony

Answer: (a) In a state of confusion and disorder

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Question 5.
According to Mrs. Pearson, where Cyril had been wasting his time and money?
(a) Races
(b) Ice shows
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Clubbing

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

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Question 6.
What was George’s reaction when he saw his wife drinking stout during day time?
(a) He did not like it
(b) He did not mind
(c) He accompanied her
(d) He ignored her

Answer: (a) He did not like it

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Question 7.
“Well, she’s suddenly all different.” Who said this and for whom?
(a) Cyril for Dorris
(b) Dorris for her mother
(c) Cyril for her mother
(d) George for Dorris

Answer: (b) Dorris for her mother

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Question 8.
What are the ‘changes’ that Mrs. Pearson referred to Cyril?
(a) Change in the way she is treated by the family
(b) Changes in her daily routine
(c) Changes related to her work
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Change in the way she is treated by the family

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Question 9.
Where was Dorris headed for the night?
(a) She had to work overtime
(b) She was going out with Charlie Spence
(c) She was going for her friend’s birthday
(d) She had some appointment

Answer: (b) She was going out with Charlie Spence

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Question 10.
What is the first thing that Dorris does as soon as she enters the house?
(a) Asks her mother to give her tea
(b) Asks her mother to cook something for her
(c) Asks her mother about her day
(d) Asks her mother to iron her yellow silk

Answer: (d) Asks her mother to iron her yellow silk

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Question 11.
How does Mrs. Fitzgerald plan to help Mrs. Pearson?
(a) By talking to Mrs. Pearson’s family
(b) By listening to Mrs. Pearson rants
(c) By swapping personalities with Mrs. Pearson
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (c) By swapping personalities with Mrs. Pearson

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Question 12.
In what endeavour does Mrs. Fitzgerald help Mrs. Pearson?
(a) To see future
(b) To make her family treat her well
(c) To run errands
(c) None of the above

Answer: (b) To make her family treat her well

Question 13.
The attitude of Mrs. Pearson’s family changes towards her. Comment.
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Maybe
(d) Not clear from the story

Answer: (b) Yes

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Question 14.
Mrs. Fitzgerald asks Mrs. Pearson to be ___________ with her family.
(a) rude
(b) polite
(c) ignorant
(d) firm

Answer: (d) firm

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Question 15.
When do Mrs. Pearson and Mrs. Fitzgerald get back to their original selves?
(a) When Mrs. Pearson’s family gets to know about them
(b) When they both get bored
(c) When the situation goes out of hand
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) When the situation goes out of hand

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In This Post we are  providing Chapter- 4 Albert Einstein at School NCERT MCQ for Class 11 English Snapshot which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2021-22 syllabus. These MCQS  can be really helpful in the preparation of Board exams and will provide you with a brief knowledge of the chapter.

NCERT MCQ ON ALBERT EINSTEIN AT SCHOOL

Q1. How did Albert plan to get into a college?

(i) By giving an entrance exam
(ii) Through his father’s reference
(iii) By getting a reference from his history teacher
(iv) By getting a reference from his mathematics teacher

Answer (iv) By getting a reference from his mathematics teacher

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Q2. I’ll never go back to that place.” Which place is Albert referring to?

(i) His home in Milan
(ii) His school
(iii) His room in quarter of Munich
(iv) Berlin

Answer (ii) His school

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Q3. What was Albert’s theory of education?

(i) Giving importance to ideas than to facts
(ii) Learning all important facts
(iii) Memorizing
(iv) Writing everything

Answer (i) Giving importance to ideas than to facts

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Q4. It’s almost the only class where I’m not wasting my time.” Which class is Albert talking about here?

(i) History
(ii) Mathematics
(iii) Science
(iv) English

Answer (ii) Mathematics

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Q5. How much did the doctor charge from Albert?

(i) Asked Albert to invite Yuri for a meal
(ii) Asked Albert to invite him for a meal
(iii) His consultation fees
(iv) None of the above

Answer (i) Asked Albert to invite Yuri for a meal

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Q6. According to Einstein, learning facts is not

(i) avoidable
(ii) wasteful
(iii) education
(iv) easy

Answer (iii) education

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Q7. What sort of a student Einstein was according to his teachers?

(i) Insincere
(ii) Rebellion
(iii) Troublesome
(iv) All of the above

Answer (iv) All of the above

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Q8. Why was Einstein summoned by the head teacher?

(i) To ask him to leave the school
(ii) To punish him for bad work
(iii) To reward him for his work
(iv) None of the above

Answer (i) To ask him to leave the school

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Q9. What was the name of Albert Einstein’s history teacher?

(i) Mr. Weil
(ii) Mr. Braun
(iii) Mr. Koch
(iv) Not mentioned in the lesson

Answer (ii) Mr. Braun

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Q10. Who did Albert Einstein meet before leaving Munich?

(i) His math’s teacher
(ii) Elsa
(iii) Yuri
(iv) The head teacher of the school

Answer (iii) Yuri

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Q11. Why did Albert feel that ‘the medical certificate was burning a hole in his pocket’?

(i) Because it had cost him money
(ii) Because it proved to be of no use
(iii) Both (i) and (ii)
(iv) None of the above

Answer (iii) Both (i) and (ii)

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Q12. The extract “Albert Einstein at School” is taken from

(i) The Young Einstein
(ii) Einstein’s expulsion
(iii) The Story of Einstein
(iv) The Famous Einstein

Answer (i) The Young Einstein

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Q13. The doctor seemed to understand what Albert was going through because

(i) he himself had been a student
(ii) he was paid well
(iii) he was new at being a doctor
(iv) None of the above

Answer (i) he himself had been a student

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Q14. For how long was Albert supposed to stay away from school as per the certificate?

(i) One month
(ii) Two months
(iii) Six months
(iv) Three months

Answer (iii) Six months

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Q15. How did Albert feel about going to school every day?

(i) Cheerful
(ii) Scared
(iii) Miserable
(iv) Grateful

Answer (iii) Miserable

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